Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after at least 1 year of having unprotected intercourse. I have only been TTC for 6 months. Does that mean that technically infertility does not apply to me? Even though I have not been ovulating and my ob/gyn used the term "unexplained IF"?? If a RE were to use that term instead of an OB/GYN in my case, then would it make it more valid?
Am I having "trouble" TTC? Or does that title only apply to those who fit the definition of infertility?
If not, then where do I fit in? If I'd been ovulating and having AF on my own then I wouldn't even consider myself as having trouble TTC. I'd just figure...ok our timing is off or the stress is affecting me. But since I was not ovulating does that make me an exception to the 1 year rule?
Just today I came across a post on a chat board I like to visit where a woman was talking about things she finds annoying about what fertile people say to infertile people...and she said that unless the person providing the advice "has been through IF (real IF, not 6 months of TTC)..." then basically they shouldn't be providing advice.
So...I guess I can see where she's coming from. All I want to know then, is where do I post my questions and comments??
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